IMT CDL Marketing Management Assignment Questions:
PART-3
1. Which of the following is not a component of the visual expression of a brand?
a. Typography
b. Tone of Voice
c. Design element
d. Logo
2. Introducing new products to existing markets is an example of :
a. Vertical diversification
b. Conglomerate diversification
c. Concentric diversification
d. Horizontal diversification
3. If a marketer decides to use ware house, transportation companies, banks and insurance companies to facilitate transactions with potential buyers, the marketer is using what is called a --------------.
a. Service channel
b. Distribution channel
c. Relationship channel
d. Intermediary channel
4. If planters is concerned that acquiring a taste for its new product, honey-roasted macadamia nuts, takes time, it should use ------------packaging.
a. Family
b. Multiple
c. Tamper-resistant
d. Unlabeled
5. A sales representative for Coca-Cola travels to various shops and restaurants to determine how much bottles the customer needs for the coming period. The sales representative would be classified as which one of the following types of sales
a. Order getter
b. Inside order taker
c. Field order taker
d. Trade salesperson
6. A carton of orange juice has no brand name on the package, only the name of the product ‘orange juice’. This is an example ofa. A manufacturer’s brand
b. An own label brand
c. A no-frills brand
d. A generic brand
7. Businesses that set their prices at around the normal market level(i.e. the same as most competitors are said to be:
a. Price takers
b. Mee-too-Brands
c. Price Copiers
d. Discount merchants
8. Products that are inventions are known as -----------------.
a. New category entry
b. An addition to product line
c. New-to-the-world products
d. A product improvement
9. A growth direction through the increase in market share for present product markets denotes which of the following?
a. Market penetration
b. Marketing mix
c. Market development
d. Product development
10. Companies should state their channel objectives in terms of targeted levels of--------------.
a. Co-op advertising
b. Fair prices
c. Efficiency and reduced conflict
d. Customer service
11. The goal of the marketing logistics system should be to provide:
a. A targeted level of promotional support.
b. A targeted level of customer services at the least cost
c. A targeted level of transportation expense ratio.
d. A targeted level of field support
12. When Coca-Cola and Nestle formed a joint venture to market a ready-to drink coffee and tea worldwide, the type of marketing system that was formed would best be described as being:
a. Vertical marketing system
b. Parallel marketing system
c. Diversified marketing system
d. Horizontal marketing system
13. If Toyota described one of its cars of the future as being ”a moderately priced subcompact designed as a second family car to be used around town” the car is ideal for running errands and visiting friends,” then the company has just stated a potential new product in terms of a(n):
a. Product idea
b. Product image
c. Product concept
d. Product feature
14. If Honda uses its company name to cover such different products as its automobiles, lawn mowers, and motorcycles, it is practicing which of the following strategies?
a. New brand strategy
b. Line extension strategy
c. Multibrand strategy
d. Brand extension strategy
15. One approach to branding is to use the same brand name for everything a company produces. However there are several drawbacks to this approach. Which of the following is not an identified drawback to this approach?
a. It is more expensive as the company has to spend money promoting all its product and also itself.
b. It can confuse the values of the brand where products within the branded range are too diverse.
c. One poorly performing product can tarnish all products carrying the name.
d. It can make it difficult for a company to dispose of a division or product line as the main value of a product is often the brand name.
16. The major disadvantage of a multichannel system is that it is harder to control and it can generate--------------.
a. Fewer domestic sales
b. Less net profit
c. Inefficiency
d. Greater conflict
17. Which of the following descriptions best describe the role of a supply chain?
a. The logistics of an organization’s distribution strategy.
b. Physical distribution and payment collection.
c. The role varies base on the nature of the environment, but can include physical ownership, payment collection, and the inclusion of after-sales service, but never involves risk or responsibility for the product.
d. The role varies based on the nature of the environment, but can include sourcing production, marketing, sales, after-sales service, and the acceptance of risk and responsibility for the product.
a. Marginal cost pricing
b. Cost plus pricing
c. Competitive pricing
d. Market oriented pricing
19. Transfer pricing is due to:
a. The operations of parallel or ‘grey’ marketers.
b. Countertrading by countries.
c. A way for International marketers to avoid paying tax.
d. International marketers transferring goods and services in their organization between different countries.
20. Which of the following costs is most likely associated with the commercialization stage of new product development?
a. Paying groups of target consumers for product feedback
b. Building or renting a manufacturing facility
c. Determining the product’s planned price distribution, and marketing budget
d. Developing a prototype of the product
21. The goal of the marketing logistics system should be to provide:
a. A Targeted level of promotional support.
b. A targeted level of transportation expense ratio.
c. A targeted level of field support.
22. According to the price/quality strategy matrix, when a company overprices its product in relation to its quality it is considered to be using which type of strategy?
a. Good-value strategy.
b. Premium strategy.
c. Overcharging strategy.
d. Snob strategy.
23. ------------------is a good offered either free or at low cost as an incentive to buy a product.
a. Patronage reward
b. Spiff
c. Price pack
d. Premium
24. Pricing to cover variable costs and some fixed costs, as in the case of some automobile distributorships that sell below total costs, is typical of which of the following pricing objectives?
a. Current profit maximization
b. Product quality leadership
c. Market share leadership
d. Survival
25. -------------------are [products bought by individuals and organizations for further processing or for use in conducting a business.
a. Consumer products
b. Services
c. Industrial products
d. Specialty products
26. ---------------have contractual authority to sell a manufacturer’s entire output.
a. Selling agents
b. Rack jobbers
c. Manufacturer’s agents
d. Purchasing agents
27. The typical method of retail operation used by supermarkets and catalog showrooms is called:
a. Self-service retailing.
b. Limited-service retailing
c. Full service retailing
d. Service merchandiser
28. The total number of items that the company carries within its product lines refers to the ------------of the product mix.
a. Width
b. Depth
c. Length
d. Consistency
29. The use of price points for reference to different levels of quality for a company’s related products is typical of which product-mix pricing strategy?
a. Optional-product pricing
b. Captive-product pricing
c. By-product pricing
d. Product line pricing
30. Using a successful brand name to introduce additional items in a given product category under the same brand name (such as new flavors, forms, colors, added ingredients, or package sizes) is called a(n):
a. Line extension
b. Brand extension
c. Multibranding
d. New brands
31. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption that might satisfy a want or need is called a(n):
a. Idea
b. Demand
c. Product
d. Service
32. Wal-Mart owned Sam’s club is an example of a retail form called a(n):
a. Factory outlet.
b. Super specialty store.
c. Seconds store.
d. Warehouse club.
33. When a company enters a new product category for which its current brand names are not appropriate, it will likely follow which of the following brand strategies?
a. Product extensions
b. Line extensions
c. Brand extensions
d. New brands
34. A manufacturer has four sponsorship options. A ------------is a brand created and owned by a reseller of product or service.
a. Licensed brand
b. Manufacturer’s brand
c. Private brand
d. Co-brand
35. --------------is setting the price steps between various products in a product line based on cost differences between the products, customer evaluations of different features, and competitors prices.
a. Optional-product pricing
b. Captive-product pricing
c. Product line pricing
d. By-product pricing
36. Rolls Royce uses which of the followings distribution formats?
a. Intensive distribution
b. Exclusive distribution
c. Selective distribution
d. Open distribution
37. Drop shippers perform which of the followings functions?
a. Assumes title and ships coal lumber or heavy equipment to a buyer.
b. Stocks the bread rack in a grocery store.
c. Maintains, owns and stocks a Cd display in a grocery store.
d. Sells jewelry out of a catalog.
38. A set of interdependent organizations involved in the process of making a product or service available for use or consumption by the consumer or business user is called a(n):
a. Retailer.
b. Wholesaler.
c. Distribution channel
d. Logistics.
39. According to the price/quality strategy matrix, when a company overprices its product in relation to its quality it is considered to be using which type of strategy?
a. Good-value strategy
b. Premium strategy
c. Overcharging strategy
d. Snob strategy
40. Consumer goods with unique characteristics or brand identification often requiring a special purchase effort are called;
a. Custom products
b. Specialty products
c. Convenience products
d. Shopping products
41. A (n) ---------------is a retail store that carries a narrow product line with a deep assortment within that line.
a. Shopping goods store
b. Convenience store
c. Specialty store
d. Department store
42. A price reduction to buyers who buy in large volumes is called a(n):
a. Quantity discount.
b. Cash discount
c. Seasonal discount
d. Trade discount
43. R&D and engineering first produce the product concept into a physical product during which of the following stages of the new product development process?
a. Concept development and testing
b. Marketing strategy
c. Business analysis
d. Product development
44. Conflicts between different levels of the same channel of distribution are referred to as;
a. Horizontal conflicts.
b. Vertical conflicts
c. Layer-based conflicts
d. Parallel conflicts
45. Costs that do not vary with production or sales levels are called:
a. Fixed costs
b. Variable costs
c. Standard costs
d. Independent costs
46. All of the following the thought to be sources of new product ideas EXCEPT:
a. Internal sources.
b. Customers
c. Competitors
d. The local library
47. If a company (considering its options on the product/market expansion grid) chooses to move into different unrelated fields (from what it has ever done before) with new products as a means to stimulate growth, the company would be following which of the following general strategies?
a. Market penetration
b. Market development
c. Product development
d. Diversification
48. ---------------is screening new-product ideas in order to spot good ideas and drop poor ones as soon as possible.
a. Idea generation
b. Concept development and testing
c. Idea screening
d. Brainstorming
49. The choice between high markups and high volume is part of which of the following retailer marketing decision?
a. Target ,market decisions
b. Product assortment and services decisions pricing decisions
c. Pricing decisions
d. Promotion decisions
50. When producers, wholesalers, and retailers act as a unified system, they comprise a:
a. Conventional marketing system
b. Power based marketing system
c. Horizontal marketing system
d. Vertical marketing system
51. The type of trade- promotion discount in which manufactures agree to reduce the price to the retailer in exchange for the retailer’s agreement to feature the manufacturer’s products in some way is called a(n)
a. Discount
b. Allowance
c. Premium
d. Rebate.
52. The American Marketing Association suggests a list of code of ethics. All of the following are ethics suggested in the area of distribution EXCEPT:
a. Not manipulating the availability of a product for purpose of exploitation.
b. Not using coercion in the marketing channel.
c. Using gray marketers whenever possible to save the consumer money.
d. Not exerting undue influence over the reseller’s choice to handle a product.
53. A--------------is the way consumers perceive an actual or potential product.
a. Product idea
b. Product image
c. Product concept
d. Product feature
54. When a company reviews sales, costs, and profit projections for a new product to find out whether these factors satisfy the company’s objectives, they are in which of the following new process development stages?
a. Concept development and testing
b. Commercialization
c. Business analysis
d. Marketing strategy development
55. Why does Procter& Gamble offer products that compete with one another on the same supermarket shelves?
a. Different people want a greater selection
b. Different people want different mixes of benefits from the products they buy.
c. Procter & gamble has little competition
d. Retailers request it
56. If Mark Mars pays Hershey Foods Corporation for the right to use their name on his line of T-shirts, then Mr. Mars is using which type of branding?
a. Licensed brand
b. Manufacture’s brand
c. Private brand
d. Co-brand
57. A (n) ---------------is a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of these that identifies the maker or seller of a product or service.
a. Product feature
b. Sponsorship
c. Brand
d. Logo
58. ---------------- is a strategy of using a successful brand name to launch a new or modified product in a new category.
a. Duobranding
b. Line extension
c. Brand extension
d. Multibranding
59. One source estimates that 80 percent of new consumer packaged goods products fail. Which of the following categories accounts for most of those failures?
a. Positioning or repositioning of new products.
b. Line extensions
c. Cost reductions
d. Brand extensions
60. The first step in the new-product development process is thought to be:
a. Idea screening
b. Idea generation
c. Concept development and testing
d. Product development
61. Major sources of new-product ideas include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Internal sources
b. Customers
c. Competitors
d. Government
62. The way consumers perceive an actual or potential product is called the:
a. Product idea.
b. Product form
c. Product concept
d. Product images
63. Which of the following would be considered to be among the issues that would be covered in the first part of a marketing strategy statement?
a. Packaging strategy
b. Target market strategy or description
c. dealer strategy
d. Advertising strategy
64. A consumer takes a tour of a new proposed store via his or her computer screen. The consumer can make suggestions as to design themes that would be attractive and he or she can also suggest merchandise options from a list provided by the Web site. Which of the following would be the form of testing that has just been described?
a. Store-based testing.
b. Producer sponsored testing
c. Virtual reality test marketing
d. Focal test marketing
65. Which of the following factors is spurring a new movement in pricing toward dynamic pricing?
a. The federal government
b. Strong retailers
c. The internet
d. Strong wholesalers
66. The four key logistics costs in a supply chain include transportation, warehousing and materials handling, inventory management and:
a. Order processing
b. Communication between buyer and seller.
c. Order cycle time.
d. Effective handling of problems.
67. -------------------is the practice of charging different prices depending on individual customers and situations.
a. Fixed-pricing
b. Standard-pricing
c. Barter-pricing
d. Dynamic pricing
68. All of the following are among the internal factors that affect pricing EXCEPT
(Pick the LEAST LIKELY.)
a. Globalization
b. The company’s marketing objectives.
c. Marketing mix strategy.
d. The organization.
69. The objectives of logistics management in a supply chain are to deliver maximum customer service and to:
a. Minimize relevant logistics costs
b. Minimize employee productivity
c. Minimize shareholder’s return on investment
d. Minimize employee layoffs.
70. Before setting price, the company must decide on its strategy for:
a. Distribution
b. Promotion
c. The environment
d. The product
71. Conflict occurring between intermediaries at the same level in a marketing channel, such as between two or more retailers that handle the same manufacturer’s brands is called------------conflict.
a. Corporate
b. Horizontal
c. Vertical
d. Administered
72. The type of market the consists of a few sellers who are highly sensitive to each other’s pricing and marketing strategies is called:
a. Pure competition
b. Monopolistic competition
c. Oligopolistic competition
d. Pure monopoly
e. Pure monopoly
73. The -------------is a curve that shows the number of units the market will buy in a given time period, at different prices that might be charged.
a. Price curve
b. Cost curve
c. Supply curve
d. Demand curve
74. If demand is elastic rather than inelastic, sellers will consider:
a. Lowering their price
b. Raising their price
c. Acquiring competitors as a means of avoiding price competition
d. Maintaining the status quo
75. Which of the following types of vertical marketing systems is likely to experience the least channel conflict?
a. Corporate vertical marketing system
b. Wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chain
c. Retailer-sponsored cooperative
d. Franchise system
76. Setting prices to break even on the costs of making and marketing a product or make the target profit it is seeking is called:
a. Cost-plus pricing
b. Perceived value pricing
c. Break even pricing
d. Going rate pricing
77. Which type of market coverage is usually associated with shopping goods?
a. Intensive distribution
b. Extensive distribution
c. selective distribution
d. Exclusive distribution
78. Which of the following would be considered to be one of the major faults of break-even analysis and target profit pricing?
a. They do not take into account the price-demand relationship
b. They are very complicated to calculate.
c. There are serious time lags in the calculation
d. Most managers do not have confidence in the methods.
79. Which of the following pricing methods uses the idea that pricing begins with analyzing consumer needs and value perceptions, and price is set to match consumer’s perceived value?
a. Cost-based pricing
b. Service-based pricing
c. Psychology-based pricing
d. Value-based pricing
80. Companies bringing out a new product fact the challenge of setting prices for the first time. They can choose between two broad strategies what are these two broad strategies?
a. Product mix strategies and pricing mix strategies
b. Product line pricing and captive-product pricing
c. Market-skimming pricing and market-penetration pricing
d. Market- expansion pricing and market harvesting pricing
81. The process of setting a high price for a new product to gain maximum revenues layer by layer form the segments willing to pay the high price is called:
a. Market – penetration pricing
b. Market – layer pricing
c. Market – skimming pricing
d. Market – saturation pricing
82. When a seller selects a given city as the source form which to charge all customers fright costs from that location, they are practicing which of the following?
a. FOB-origin pricing
b. Uniform-delivered pricing
c. Zone pricing
d. Basing-point pricing
83. A contractual arrangement between a parent company and an individual or firm that allows the individual or firm to operate a certain type of business under an established name and according to specific rules is called:
a. A corporate vertical marketing system.
b. A wholesaler sponsored voluntary chain
c. A retailer sponsored cooperative
d. Franchising
84. A functional discount is also called a----------discount.
a. Segmented
b. Quantity
c. Trade
d. Service
85. A (n) -------------is any intermediary who sells to other intermediaries. Usually to retailers, and usually in consumer markets.
a. Dealer
b. Agent or broker
c. Retailer
d. Wholesaler
86. Intermediaries performing a transactional function in distribution are engaged in buying, selling, and:
a. Channeling strategizing
b. Liaising
c. Strategizing
d. Risk taking
87. Transactional function activities involve:
a. Buying, selling, and risk taking
b. Assorting sorting and storing
c. Financing and grading
d. Transportation
88. ---------------is a measure of the sensitivity of demand to changes in price
a. price sensitivity
b. Price comparability
c. Price elasticity
d. Price response
89. A company can add new products through acquisition or development. The acquisition route can take three forms. The company can buy other companies, it can acquire patents form other companies, or it can buy a-------------or------------from another company.
a. License/franchise
b. License/receive permission
c. Franchise/co-brand
d. Franchise/acquire rights
90. The development route for new products takes two forms. These two forms are ---------or it can-------------.
a. New products in its own labs/contract with
b. New products in its own labs/acquire new products from existing companies
c. Contract out for new products/acquire new products from existing companies
d. New products in its own labs/introduce existing products as “new”
91. New-to-the- world products are --------.
a. New products that create an entirely new market
b. New products that allow a company to enter an established market for the first time
c. New products that supplement established product lines(package sizes, flavors, and so on)
d. New products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value and replace existing products
92. New product lines are-----------.
a. New products that create an entirely new market
b. New products that allow a company to enter an established market for the first time
c. New products that supplement established product lines (package sizes, flavors, and so on).
d. New products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value and replace existing products
93. Additions to existing product lines are ----------------.
a. New products that create an entirely new market
b. New products that allow a company to enter an established market for the first time
c. New products that supplement established product lines (package sizes, flavors, and so on)
d. New products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value and replace existing products
94. Improvements and revisions of existing products are------------.
a. New products that create an entirely new market
b. New products that allow a company to enter an established market for the first time
c. New products that supplement established product lines (package sizes, flavors, and so on)
d. New products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value and replace existing products
95. Repositioning are -------------.
a. New products that create an entirely new market
b. New products that allow a company to enter n established market for the first time
c. New products that supplement established product lines (packages sizes, flavors, and so on)
d. Existing products that are targeted to new markets or market segments
96. Cost reductions are----------.
a. New products that create an entirely new market
b. New products that provide similar performance at lower costs
c. New products that supplement established product lines ( package sizes, flavors, and so on)
d. New products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value and replace existing products
97. Less than ----------of all new products are truly innovative and new to the world.
a. 15 percent
b. 20 percent
c. 10percent
d. 25 percent
e. 40percent
98. Most new-product activity si devoted to ---------existing products.
a. Improving
b. Coordinating
c. Distributing
d. Pricing
99. In an economy of rapid change, continuous innovation is necessary. Most companies -----------, innovate some innovate occasionally, and few innovate, continuously.
a. Rarely
b. Often
c. As needed
d. When competition introduces a new improved product
100. Most established companies focus on------------when it comes to innovation.
a. Incremental innovation
b. Continuous innovation
c. Everyday innovation
d. Demand innovation
101. New companies create --------------that are cheaper and more likely to alter the competitive space. Established companies can be slow to react or invest in these technologies because they threaten their investment.
a. New products
b. Newer markets
c. Newer channels of distribution
d. Disruptive technologies
102. New products continue to fail at a disturbing rate. Recent studies put the rate at --------------in the United States.
a. 105 percent
b. 95percent
c. 85percent
d. 90percent
103. One of the reasons new products can fail is---------------.
a. Lack of marketing expertise
b. Government regulations
c. Poor packaging
d. Ignoring or misinterpreting market research
104. Besides the lack of marketing expertise, another reason why new products fail is due to ---------.
a. Lack of marketing expertise
b. High development costs
c. Poor packaging
d. Government regulations
105. Another reason why new products fail at such a high rate is------------
a. Incorrect positioning
b. Lack of marketing expertise
c. Poor packaging
d. Government regulations
106. New products fail for many reasons. One to the causes of new product failure is------------.
a. Lack of marketing expertise
b. Ineffective advertising or wrong price
c. Poor packaging
d. Government regulations.
107. One of the reasons new products fail at a 95 percent rate is due to-------------.
a. Lack of marketing expertise
b. Poor packaging
c. Insufficient distribution support
d. Government regulations.
108. Several factors hinder new-product development include ------------.
a. Cost of development
b. Fragmented markets
c. Shortage of important ideas in certain areas
d. All of the above
109. Two factors that contribute to s successful new product are ---------and--------------.
a. A unique superior product/well-defined product concept
b. Marketing departments that have expertise in new products/well-defined product concept
c. A firm with “deep pockets” /average product
d. A firm with “deep pockets”/strong marketing term
110. Once a company has carefully segmented the market, chosen its target customers, identified their needs, and determined its market positioning it is better able to develop new products. Many companies today use----------to design new products.
a. Customer-driven engineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Corporate-competency engineering
d. Trial and error
111. Many companies assign responsibility for new- product ideas to-------------.
a. Vice presidents
b. Product managers
c. Functional experts
d. R&D personnel
112. ---------------is (are) a cross-functional group charged with developing a specific
product or business.
a. Contract manufacturing
b. A venture team
c. New product managers
d. Product managers
113. To bring new products to market, some companies have assigned responsibility to new- product managers, new-product departments, and high-level management committees. These would all be examples of ---------------.
a. Product organizations within firms
b. Marketing organizations
c. Existing-product marketing organizations
d. New-product development organizations within firms
114. 3M, Hewlett-Packard, Lego, and other companies use the -------- to manage the innovation process.
a. Stage-gate system
b. Joint-venture system
c. new product “team”
d. Venture team
115. The new-product development process starts with the search for ---------------.
a. New concepts
b. Products that can be improved upon
c. Overseas products
d. Ideas
116. New product ideas can come from interacting with various groups and from using------------.
a. Marketing resources
b. Financial resources
c. Groups
d. Creativity-generating techniques
117. Ideas for new products can come from many sources, such as customers, scientists, competitors, employees, channel members, and -----------.
a. Consumers
b. Brand management
c. Top management
d. Current users of the company’s products
118. One-on-one interviews and----------discussions can explore product needs and reactions.
a. Focus group
b. Strategic group
c. Customer relationship group
d. Management
119. Technical companies can learn a great deal by studying customers how make the most advanced use of the company’s products and who recognize the need for---------before other customers do.
a. Changes
b. Improvements
c. Deletions
d. Management interaction
120. Employees can be a source of ideas for improving----------, products and services. Toyota claims its employees submit 2 million ideas annually over 85 percent of which are implemented.
a. Production
b. Marketing
c. Advertising
d. Revenue
121. Company----------and intermediaries are a particular good source of ideas. These groups have firsthand exposures to customers and area often the first to learn about competitive developments.
a. Marketing departments
b. Competitors
c. Sales representatives
d. Top management
And.
122. A company should motivate its employees to submit new ideas to a(n)---------- whose name and phone number are widely circulated.
a. Idea manager
b. Senior product manager
c. Creative manager
d. Advertising manager
123. A--------------occurs when the company dismisses an otherwise good idea.
a. Product failure
b. Brand failure
c. Dual error
d. DROP-error
124. A------------occurs when the company permits a poor idea to move into development and commercialization.
a. Dual error
b. Brand failure
c. GO-error
d. DROP-error
125. A (n) ----------failure loses money when its sales do not cover variable costs.
a. Strategic product
b. Market product
c. Absolute product
d. Relative product
126. A-----------loses money, but its sales cover all its variable costs and some of the fixed costs.
a. Strategic product failure
b. Market product failure
c. Partial product failure
d. Relative product failure
127. A---------yields a profit that is less than the company’s target rate of return.
a. Strategic product failure
b. Market product failure
c. Absolute product failure
d. Relative product failure
128. Attractive ideas must be refined into testable product concepts. A -------------is a possible product the company might offer to the market.
a. Test brand
b. “alpha” product
c. “beta” version
d. Product idea
129. A---------------is an elaborated version of the idea expressed in consumer terms.
a. Test brand
b. “alpha” product
c. “beta” version
d. Product concept
And.
130. Consumer preferences for alternative product concepts can be measured through ---------------, a method for deriving the utility values that consumers attach to varying levels of a product’s attributes.
a. Marketing strategy
b. Marketing research
c. Gap level
d. Conjoint analysis
131. In the past, creating physical prototypes was costly and time-consuming, but computer-aided design and manufacturing programs have changed that. Today firms can use -----------to design products on a computer, and then produce plastic models of each.
a. Computer aided design
b. Rapid prototyping
c. Model making
d. Perceived reality
e. None of the above
132. Total estimated sales are the sum of estimated first-time sales, replacement sales, and ------------for the new product.
a. Repeat sales
b. One-time purchases
c. Infrequently purchased items
d. Consumer products
133. In estimating sales, the manager’s first task is to estimate first-time purchases of the new product in each period. To estimate replacement sales, management has to research the product’s-------------that is, the number of units that fail in year one, two, three, and so on. The low end of the distribution indicates when the first replacement sales will take place.
a. Survival-age distribution
b. Distribution
c. Obsolescence
d. Product failure
134. Companies use financial measures to evaluate the merit of a new-product proposal. The simplest to use is called-------------, in which management estimates how many units of the product the company would have to sell to break even with the given price and cost structure.
a. Conjoint analysis
b. Risk analysis
c. Regression analysis
d. Breakeven analysis
135. The job of translating target customer requirements into a working prototype is helped by a set of methods known as------------.
a. Quality function deployment (QFD)
b. Quality control processes(QFP)
c. R&D
d. Marketing control
136. The methodology of quality function deployment takes the list of desired --------------generated by market research and turns them into a list of -------------that the engineers can use.
a. Customer attributes/engineers can use
b. Consumer attributes/environmental attributes
c. Customer attributes/engineering attributes
d. Consumer attributes/ engineering specifications
137. When prototypes are ready, the must be put through rigorous functional tests and--------------.
a. Consumer behavior
b. Customer tests
c. Internal tests
d. Marketing department testing
138. The------------method asks the consumer to rank three items in order of preference.
a. Rank-order
b. Paired-comparisons
c. Monadic-rating
d. Alpha-ranking
139. The-------------method calls for presenting pairs of items and asking the consumer which one is preferred in each pair. People find it easy to state their preferences between two items, and this method allows the consumer to focus on the tow items, noting their differences and similarities.
a. Rank-order
b. Paired-comparisons
c. Monadic-rating
d. Alpha-ranking
140. The------------method asks the consumer to rate liking to each product on a scale. By using this method, we can derive the individual’s preference order and even know the qualitative levels of the person’s preference for each and the rough distance between preferences.
a. Paired-comparison
b. Rank-order
c. Monadic-rating
d. Alpha-testing
141. In consumer-goods market testing, the company seeks to estimate four variables. These four variables are; trial, first repeat, adoption, and -------------.
a. Money back guarantee
b. Price
c. Purchase frequency
d. Usage
142. A (n) -------------is any good, service, or idea that is perceived by someone as new. The idea may have a long history, but it is new to the person who sees it as such.
a. Product
b. Innovation
c. New idea
d. Creative product
143. A dopters of new products move through five stages. These stages begin with stage one ------------, and follow with interest, evaluation, trial, and adoption.
a. Awareness
b. Adoption
c. Innovation
d. Diffusion process
144. The innovation diffusion process has been defined by Rogers as” the spread of a new idea from its source of invention or creation to its ultimate. Users or adopters.” The consumer -adoption process focuses on the -----------process through which an individual passes form first hearing about an innovation to final adoption.
a. Mental physical
b. Evaluation
c. Physical
d. Critical path
145. Five characteristics that influence the rate of adoption of an innovation. The first one is----------------.
a. Marketing expertise
b. Relative advantage
c. Packaging
d. Government regulations
146. ----------------is the effect one person has on another’s attitude or purchase probability.
a. Effective influence
b. Direct influence
c. Market influence
d. Personal influence
147. The degree to which the beneficial results of an innovations use are observable or describable to other is called-------------.
a. Divisibility
b. Communicability
c. Compatibility
d. Relative advantage
148. In response to giant retailers and category killers, entrepreneurial retailers are building entertainment into stores with coffee bars, lectures, demonstrations, and performances. They are marketing a(n)----------------rather than a product assortment.
a. Experience
b. Customer value
c. Customer delight
d. Total service solution
149. In response to threats from such companies as AOL, Amazon, Yahoo, eBay, E’TRADE, and dozens of others, established manufactures and retailers became “brickand-click” oriented by adding online services to their existing offerings. This process became known as-----------.
a. Reintermediation
b. Disintermediation
c. E-commerce
d. E-collaboration
150. If a marketer decides to use warehouses, transportation companies, banks and insurance companies to facilitate transactions with potential buyers, the marketer is using what is called a--------------.
a. Service channel
b. Distribution channel
c. Brand channel
d. Relationship channel
151. At the heart of any marketing program is the -----------the firm’s tangible offering to the market.
a. Service offer
b. Product
c. Sales support team
d. Packaging
152. With respect to the core business processes, all the activities involved in researching, developing, and launching new high-quality offerings quickly and within budget are referred to as the-------------.
a. New product process
b. New offering realization process
c. Product development process
d. Product launch process.
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